RPSC 2nd Grade English Answer Key Solution 2011 by Arya Compition times

RPSC II Grade Teacher Exam. 2011

ENGLISH Solved Paper : Date 10/12/2011

1. "As many farewells as there be stars in heaven." The sentence Consists of a/an

(1) Hyperbole (2) Paradox (3) Pun (4) Irony (1)

2. An Apostrophe is a figure by which

(1) the poet addresses a person or a personified idea.

(2) a man is personified and made famous.

(3) a woman is given an unusual image.

(4) a soul is attributed unusual features. (1)

3. Who are associated with the Romantic Revival ?

(1) Wordsworth, Coleridge, Pope and Dryden

(2) Wordsworth, Coleridge, Keats and Shelley

(3) Wordsworth, Southey, Pope and Coleridge

(4) Wordsworth, Keats, Byron and Pope (2)

4. Alexander Pope's famous poem is

(1)	Rape of the Lock	(2)	Lyrical Ballads	(1)
(3)	Absalom and Achitophel	(4)	Extasie	(1)

5. Neo-classical Movement emphasized

(1) the observance of literary rules

(2) the non-observance of literary rules

(3) the purity of literature

(4) the function of literature (1)

6. S. T. Coleridge wrote poems dealing with

(1)	Nature	(2)	Supernatural elements	(2)
(3)	Urbanization	(4)	Industrialization	(2)

7. 'Beauty is truth, truth beauty'. Where does this line occur

(1) In Shelley's 'Ode to the West Wind'

(2) In Keats' 'Ode on a Grecian Urn'

(3) In Shelley's 'Ode to a Skylark'

(4) In Coleridge's 'Ancient Mariner' (2)

8. The objective of Teaching Poetry is to enable the pupils to

(1) Enhance their vocabulary

(2) Promote their thinking power

(3) Make them aware of grammar

(4) Develop the taste for aesthetic sensibility (4)

9. In Communicative language teaching which one of the following is correct?

(1)	Grammatical accuracy	(2)	Rules of grammar	(3)
(3)	Fluency in expression	(4)	Mastery of content	(3)

10. According to HG. Widdowson, "The best way of imparting grammatical competence is

(1) through the rote method	(2) through graphic skills	(2)
(3) through use and not usage	(4) through the internet	(2)

11. One of the fundamental principles of Second Language teaching is

(1)	Gradation	(2)	Explanation	(1)
(3)	Contention	(4)	Relaxation	(1)

12. He kept the money in his Wallet.

Which one of the following sentences given below does not belong to the pattern given above ?

(1) They left the room in a hurry.

(2) She presented her case in the morning.

(3) He coloured the clothes red.

(4) We put the books on the table. (3)

13. He kept the book on the table.

In the above sentence the underlined portion is

(1) a noun phrase	(2) an adverbial phrase	(2)
(3) an adjectival phrase	(4) a phrasal verb	(2)

14. Who are known as the trio of Indian English novelists ?

(1) Mulk Raj Anand, R. K. Narayan and Raja Rao

(2) Anita Desai, Mulk Raj Anand and Kiran Desai

(3) Anita Desai, Kiran Desai and Kamla Das

	(4)	R. K. Narayan, Raja Rao and Kamla Markandaya			(1)
15.	Rabindranath Tagore's most famous poem is
	(l) Gitanjali		(2)	Savitri	(1)
	(3)	Untouchable	(4)	Coolie	(1)
16.	Who wrote 'Kanthapura'?
	(1)	Raja Rao	(2)	Mulk Raj Anand	(1)
	(3)	R. K. Narayan	(4)	V. S. Naipaul	(1)

17-21 Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

It was only a sporting mood that made Sami enter the gates. Usually he avoided these big places where people were haughty, aloof and inaccessible, and kept formidable dogs and servants. He went up hesitatingly, expecting to be shouted off any moment, when he saw a servant coming towards him. Sami held the monkey tight and turned to flee, but the servant caught with him and poured out a volley of words. Sami indicated that he could not hear, whereupon the servant explained by signs that the master of the house wanted the monkey to be brought up before him.

17. Sami entered the gates of a big bungalow because

(1) he was attracted by its loveliness.

(2) he wanted to speak to the owner.

(3) he was invited by the owner.

(4) he was in a sporting mood. (4)

18. When Sami saw a servant coming towards him

(l) he turned to run away.

(2) he stood motionless.

(3) he moved forward hesitatingly.

(4) he made the monkey turn on the servant. (3)

19. The servant explained to Sami by signs because

(1) the servant was dumb.

(2) the servant wanted to be thought deaf.

(3) he came to know that Sami was deaf

(4) he did not like his words to be heard by his master. (3)

20. The owner of the house

(1) hated Sami.

(2) wanted to see the monkey.

(3) wanted to have the monkey himself

	(4) was afraid of the monkey.	(2)
21.	The word "formidable" means

(1) violent	(2) frightening	(2)
(3) very cruel	(4) very strong	(2)

22-23. Mark the antonyms of the underlined words in the sentences given he/air

22.	A little knowledge is dangerous.
	(1) ignorance		(2) improvement		(1)
	(3) deterioration		(4) obscurity		(1)
23.	Different poles of magnet ct each other.				(1)
	(1) repel	(2) defend	(3) distract	(4) reject	(1)

24-26. Mark the synonyms of the underlined words in the sentences given below

24. The deteriorating level of education in many varsities is really

(1) obnoxious (2) vial (3) vide (4) viga (1)

25. The stories-serve as a grim reminder of how urgent it is not to forget-the horrors of 1947.

	(1) grime	(2) gloomy	(3) grin	(4) grig	(2)
26.	He was nonplussed.				(3)
	(1) trouble	(2) anxiety	(3) confused	(4) pleasant	(3)
27.	A basic sentence is also known as
	(1) kernel sentence		(2) simple sentence		(1)
	(3) derived sentence		(4) compound sentence		(1)
28.	The antonym of "harsh" is				(2)
	(1) severe	(2) mild	(3) hard	(4) rough	(2)
29.	The word "juvenile" means				(1)
	(l) young	(2) cunning	(3) uneducated	(4) criminal	(1)

30. An ode is

(1) a fourteen line poem

(2) a long lyric poem serious iii subject matter

(3) a lament

(4) a sonnet (2)

31. SPOCA means:

(i) Subject, Predicate, Object, Complement, Adjunct

(2) Subject, Predicator, Object, Complement, Adjunct

(3) Subject, Predicator, Object. Complement, Adjective

	(4) Subject. Predication, Object, Complement, Adjective				(2)
*32-33. Analyse the following sentences in terms of SPOCA:*
32.	"He has authored two volumes".				(1)
	(1) SPO	(2) SPAA	(3) SPOA	(4) SPC	(1)
33.	"Police caught the thief red-handed".				(2)
	(1) SPOO	(2) SPOC	(3) SPOA	(4) SPAA	(2)

34. A Complement

(1) is always a noun phrase.

(2) is always an adjective phrase.

(3) may be either an adjective phrase or a noun phrase.

(4) may be either an adverb phrase or a noun phrase. (3)

35. Choose the sentence that belongs to the structure - SPO.

(1) She knows how to drive. (2) She goes to college everyday.

(3) Mohan can speak for hours. (4) Shruti has left for Agra. (1)

36. How many phonetic symbols are there in R.P. 2

(1)	44	(2) 42	(3)	40	(4) 05	(1)
37. The R.P. Diphthongs are also called
(1)	R.P. Vowel glides		(2)	Pure Vowels		(1)
(3)	Monophthongs		(4)	Frictionless Sounds		(1)

38. The classification of R.P. consonants is done according to

(1) the manner and place of articulation

(2) the place of articulation only

(3) the manner of articulation only

(4) the position of lips (1)

39. Which of the following is not mentioned while describing a vowel sound?

(1) The part of the tongue raised

(2) The height to which the tongue is raised

(3) The position of lips

(4) Eye contact (4)

40. Which word class is often defined by position rather than by form?

(1) Nouns (2) Adjectives (3) Adverbs (4) Verbs (2)

41. The nominative forms of the personal pronouns of the first and third persons are

(1) I, we, he, she, they	(2) I, you, he, she, we	(1)
(3) me, him, her, us, their	(4) you, your, yours, your's	(1)

42. 'A baby should have one bath everyday and if strong may have two' In the above sentence the personal pronoun 'he' refers to

(1) a male child	(2) a female child	(1)
(3) a little girl	(4) Sex is unknown	(1)

43. Reflexive Pronouns are also known as

(1) Compound Personal Pronouns (2) Demonstrative Pronouns

(3) Possessive Pronouns (4) Relative Pronouns (1)

44. Which of the following is a correct grammatical construction-

(1) Draughts is entirely a game of mathematical calculation.

(2) Draughts are entirely a game of mathematical calculation.

(3) Draughts is entirely the game of mathematic calculation.

(4) Draughts have entirely the game of mathematic calculation.(1)

45. Take the book _________ the table

(1) off (2) in (3) into (4) out of (1)

46-58. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate alternative. 46. You not drive fast. There is a speed limit here.

(1) must (2) need (3) will (4) shall (1)

47. Measles _______ be quite dangerous.

(1) can (2) may (3) must (4) shall (1)

48. I _______ have lent you the money. Why didn't you ask me.

(1) shall (2) could (3) may (4) can (2)

49. You ________ have waited till the lights were green.

(1) ought to (2) need to (3) dare (4) can (1)

50. They _______ to go for a walk in the morning; now they don't.

(1) used (2) would (3) could (4) might (1)

51. He is greatly afflicted _________ the death of his child.

(1) by (2) at (3) with (4) to (2)

52. He aspires _______ that well-paid situation.

(1) to (2) after (3) for (4) out (1)

53. I am anxious ______ my son's safety

(1) about (2) to (3) for (4) of (3)

54. These words are becoming _________ a king.

(1) to (2) in (3) of (4) from (3)

55. A judge should deal _______ equal justice to all.

(1) out (2) in (3) with (4) into (3)

56. She had no other claim to the post _______ her good looks.

(1) but (2) than (3) so (4) then (1)

57. He had scarcely recovered from fever _______ he contracted a bad cold.

(1) when (2) than (3) then (4) as (1)

58. I shall do it ________ pleasure.

(1) from (2) with (3) to (4) among (2)

59. Mark the grammatically correct sentence

(1) I would sooner die than to confess it.

(2) I would sooner die than confess it.

(3) I would rather die than to confess it.

(4) I had better die than to confess it. (2)

60. I readily closed with his offer. The underlined words mean

(1) found (2) persuaded (3) accepted (4) got rid of (3)

61. The Directors of the company put their heads together to solve the problem. The underlined idiom implies

(1) consulted one another	(2) failed to understand	(1)
(3) listened to each other	(4) ran away	(1)

62. He _________ in this house for twenty years.

(1) living	(2) has lived	(2)
(3) has had live	(4) had has been living	(2)

63. If I _______ wealthy, I should have many friends.

(1) would be (2) were (3) should be (4) had been (2)

64. If I ________ attended the training course, I would have learnt something.

	(1) had		(2) would have		(1)
	(3) have		(4) should have		(1)
65.	This torch three batteries.				(2)
	(1) is holding	(2) holds	(3) hold	(4) holded	(2)

66. Your English has improved___________

(1) in 2010

(2) since she started teaching you

(3) since she would be teaching you

(4) since she could be teaching you (2)

67. I saw my parents

(1) for four days	(2) four days ago	(2)
(3) since four days	(4) since for four days	(2)

68. I went to the court because I ________ a show cause notice.

(1) received	(2) had received	(2)
(3) have received	(4) has received	(2)

69. In direct speech

(1) quotation marks are placed at the end of the sentence after the full stop, comma, question mark or mark of exclamation.

(2) quotation marks arc placed at the end of the sentence only after the full stop.

(3) quotation marks are placed at the end of the sentence only after the question mark.

(4) quotation marks are placed at the end of the sentence only after

the mark of exclamation. (1)

70. No system of Government is perfect. (Transform into affirmative)

(1) Every government is imperfect

(2) Every system of government is imperfect

(3) All systems of government have drawbacks

(4) Government has been made imperfect by systems. (2)

71. She will feel better in the morning. (Transform into interrogative)

(1) Would she feet better in the morning ?

(2) Will she feel better in the morning ?

(3) Will she be feeling better in the morning ?

(4) Would she have felt better in the morning ? (2)

72. Those women speak German (Add a question tag)

(1) Those women speak German, don't them ?

(2) Those women speak German, do they ?

(3) Those women speak German, don't they ?

(4) Those women speak German, did they ? (3)

73. This watch does not keep correct time (Transform into negative interrogative)

(1) Do this watch keep correct time ?

(2) Doesn't this watch kept correct time ?

(3) Doesn't this watch keep correct time ?

(4) Does the time given by this watch is incorrect ? (3)

74. Was he not a villain to do such a deed ? (Transform into assertive)

(1) He was a villain to do such a deed.

(2) He is a villain to do such a deeds.

(3) Such a had deed he do.

(4) He did a bad deed readily, he is a villain. (1)

75. In which of the following, 'Do' functions as a substitute for the verb in questions which ask about action ?

(1) What do you do in the evenings ?

(2) Do you like that movie ?

(3) I do go to the class once in a while.

(4) I do write to him everyday. (1)

76. Which of the following is not true ?

(1) The passive voice is used when the active subject is not known.

(2) The passive voice is used when the speaker is interested in mentioning the active subject.

(3) When for reasons of tact, good manners of secrecy it is not proper to mention the agent.

(4) When the writer/speaker wants to give prominence to a word or

phrase in the sentence. (2)

77. 'He bought her a saree'.

The above construction cannot have two passive voice sentences because

(1) two passives are possible only when the indirect object can be preceded by the preposition 'to'.

(2) two passives are possible only when the indirect object can be preceded by the preposition 'on'.

(3) two passives are possible only .when the indirect object can be preceded by the preposition 'for'

(4) two passives are possible only when the indirect object can be

preceded by the preposition 'upon'. (3)

78. 'It has been brought to our notice'.

The above passive construction is most likely to occur in

(1)	Official correspondence	(2)	Conversation	(1)
(3)	Welcome address	(4)	Welcome speech	(1)

79. 'Do the doctors here make such mistakes?' The passive voice of the above sentence is

(1) Are such mistakes made by the doctors here ?

(2) Is such mistakes made by the doctors here ?

(3) Were such mistakes made by the doctors here ?

(4) Such mistakes are made by the doctors here. (1)

80. She bathed in the river. The underlined word is

(1)	Transitive verb	(2)	Intransitive verb	(2)
(3)	Gerund	(4)	Infinitive	(2)

81. Students ________ do not play games, do not progress in life.

(1) who (2) whom (3) that (4) which (1)

82. I can't read small print I want to get my eyes tested.

(1) but (2) that (3) therefore (4) though (3)

83. The little boy grew up _______ he became a great man the whole world heard about him.

	(1) and - through		(2) and - and		(2)
	(3) and - but		(4) although - but		(2)
84.	The news _______ he is retiring is false.				(1)
	(1) that	(2) which	(3) where	(4) when	(1)
85.	Take this _______ give that.				(2)
	(1) only	(2) and	(3) neither	(4) as	(2)

86. The question word for all possessive forms, such as possessive nouns possessive pronouns and possessive adjectives, is:

(1) what (2) whom (3) whose (4) where (3)

87. Which question word denotes frequency ?

(1) How often (2) How long (3) What kind (4) What time(1)

88. An interjection is a word

(1) Which expresses strong feelings.

(2) Which is always used after a noun.

(3) Which is always used before an adjective.

(4) Which is never used in conversation. (1)

89. Which of the following sentence contains a demonstrative pronoun?

(1)	This is my pen.	(2)	This pen is mine.	(1)
(3)	This book is hers.	(4)	That book is red.	(1)

90. The four demonstratives include

(1) this, these, that, those	(2) this, there, their, these	(1)
(3) this, that, those, their	(4) their, there, than, then	(1)

91. 'Do you eat much fruit?' The underlined word in the above sentence is.

(1) a countable noun	(2) a common noun	(3)
(3) an uncountable noun	(4) a collective noun	(3)

92. Which of the following is not true?

(1) Abstract nouns arc mainly uncountable nouns.

(2) Concrete nouns are mainly countable nouns.

(3) Abstract nouns are mainly countable nouns.

(4) A common noun refers to a class. (3)

93. 'If they were here, they would tell you.' 'Were they here, they would tell you.' The above two sentences convey

(1) the same meaning

(2) different meaning

(3) the same meaning. The second one is more likely in writing.

(4) the same meaning. The second one is more likely in speech.(4)

94-96 Rewrite the following sentences beginning them with the words given in brackets.

94. 'Other rivers in the world are not so long as the Mississipi' (The Mississipi…..)

(1) No other river is as longer as the Mississipi.

(2) The Mississipi is the longest river in the world.

(3) The Mississipi is the longest river of the world.

(4) The Mississipi is absolutely the longest river. (2)

95. 'Other places in India are not so beautiful as Kashmir.' (Kashmir is )

(1) Kashmir is the most beautiful place in India.

(2) Kashmir is more beautiful place in India.

(3) No place is so beautiful as Kashmir.

(4) Kashmir is not a very beautiful place. (1)

96. 'Other bazars are not so crowded as the Bapu Bazar'. (The Bapu Bazar is.....)

(1) The Bapu Bazar is the most crowded bazar.

(2) The Bapu Bazar is certainly a crowded place.

(3) The Bapu Bazar was the most crowded bazar.

(4) The Bazar is not so crowded a place.	(1)
*Change the following sentences as directed in the brackets.*

97. 'Abdul is older than any other man in the village'. (Convert into superlative degree)

(1) Abdul is the oldest man in the village.

(2) Abdul is the most old man in the village.

(3) Abdul is the oldest man alive in the village.

(4) Abdul is older than all the people in the village. (1)

98. 'Mt. Everest is higher than any other peak in the world'. (Convert into superlative degree)

(1) Mt. Everest is the most high peak in the world.

(2) Mt. Everest is the highest peak in the world.

(3) Mt. Everest is the only highest peak in the world.

	(4)	Mt. Everest is not the highest peak in the world.			(2)
99-103. What do the following idiomatic expressions mean?
99.	A wild goose chase
	(l) A foolish and fruitless search
	(2)	A foolish but fruitful search
	(3)	A foolish but pleasant search			(1)
	(4)	A comprehensive search			(1)
100.	A Wolf in Sheep's Clothing
	(1)	A hypocrite	(2)	An honest man
	(3)	A sincere man	(4)	An honest and sincere man (1)
101.	A dead letter
	(1)	No longer Liked	(2)	No longer in force	(2)
	(3)	No longer in control	(4)	No longer dead	(2)
102. in a jiffy
	(1) very soon		(2) later		(1)
	(3) a little later		(4) after a long time		(1)
103.	There is no smoke without fire

(1) There is no effect without a background.

(2) There is no effect without a cause.

(3) There is no cause without an effect.

(4) There must be a cause for a happening. (4)

104-108. Change the following sentences as directed in the brackets.

104. ‘I will always remember your kind cooperation.’ (Change into negative without changing its meaning)

(1) I will not always remember your kind cooperation.

(2) 1 will never remember your kind cooperation.

(3) I will never forget your kind cooperation

(4) Never will I remember your kind cooperation. (3)

105. 'He missed the train because he was late' (Change into a simple sentence)

(1) Because he was late, he missed the train.

(2) Being late, he missed the train.

(3) Since he was late, he missed the train.

(4) Since late, he missed the train. (2)

106. 'Irrigate the fields and the crops will grow fast' (Change into complex sentence)

(1) if you irrigate the fields, the crops will grow fast.

(2) If you don't irrigate the fields, the crops will grow fast.

(3) If you irrigate the fields, the crops will not grow fast.

(4) Don't irrigate the fields, otherwise the crops will grow. (1)

107. To drink wine spoils the appetite.

if we change the underlined infinitive into a gerund, the answer will be

(1) Appetite is spoilt by wine.

(2) Drinking wine spoils the appetite.

(3) Do not drink wine as it spoils appetite.

(4) To save appetite one should not drink wine. (2)

108. 'Everyone wants to be a millionaire!' (Change into interrogative)

(1) No one wants to be a millionaire.

(2) Who do not want to be a millionaire ?

(3) Who does not want to be a millionaire ?

(4) Who will want to he a millionaire ? (3)

109-113. Read the sentences given below and identify the meaning of

	*the underlined phrasal verbs by choosing an appropriate*
	*alternative.*
109.	'If you eat any more cream, you will bring it up'.
	(1) To be sick		(2) To raise a point		(1)
	(3) To rear		(4) To convert		(1)
110.	'Call in a doctor immediately'.				(2)
	(1) send	(2) send for	(3) send back	(4) produce	(2)
111.	'She takes after her mother.'
	(1) resembles		(2) follows		(1)
	(3) obeys		(4) commands		(1)
112.	‘In disgust, he threw up his appointment’.				(2)
	(1) threw away (2) resigned		(3) embraced	(4) yielded	(2)
113.	'If your servant is lazy, why don't you turn him off'.
	(1) to dismiss		(2) to produce		(1)
	(3) to present		(4) to capsize		(1)
*114-118. Identify the underlined, sounds in the following words:*

114. Tomb

(1) |>| (2) |u:| (3) |ə| (4) | ə :| (2)

115. Canoe

(1) |u:| (2) |a:| (3) |):| (4) | ə | (1)

116. Clause

(1) | ə u| (2) |):| (3) |au| (4) |u ə | (2)

117. Clear

(1) |I ə | (2) |u ə | (3) |e ə | (4) | ə u| (1)

118. House

(1) |au| (2) | ə u| (3) |e ə | (4) |I ə | (1)

119. Fill in the blanks.

Please _______ this advertisement in the matrimonial columns of The Times of India.

	(1) put in	(2) put on	(3) set on	(4) turn in	(1)
120.	It took a long time to the enemy's resistance.				(2)
	(1) tone down	(2) break down	(3) put out	(4) get on	(2)
121.	John is not speaking to Sarah. They have
	(1) fixed up		(2) fallen out		(2)
	(3) laid off		(4) broken down		(2)

122. Change the following sentences into passive voice They have turned down all our suggestions

(1) All our suggestions have been turned down.

(2) Suggestions turned up by them.

(3) Suggestions turning down by they them.

(4) Suggestions not accepted. (1)

123. I am going to go out and _______

(Choose the correct option)

(1) let my hair cut by him.	(2) have my hair cut.	(2)
(3) have cut my hair.	(4) my hair be cut.	(2)

124. People say that grapes are better for us than mangoes. The correct passive voice option is

(1) Grapes have been called better for us.

(2) People said grapes are better for us.

(3) Grapes are said to be better for us than mangoes.

(4) Grapes are rated better than mangoes. (3)

125. They will look after you well. (The correct passive option is )

(1) You will be well looked after.

(2) You will be looked after well.

(3) After you will be looked well.

(4) They will look after you. (2)

126. People use this footpath all the time.

The correct passive voice option is

(1) All the time this footpath is used by all.

(2) All the time this footpath is used by people.

(3) This footpath is in use all the time.

(4) This footpath is used all the time. (4)

127. 'He writes.'

The above sentence means

(1) He is an author.

(2) He writes regularly in the newspapers.

(3)	He writes occasionally.	(1)
(4)	He writes at the weekends.	(1)

128. 'Please talk to the person concerned'.

In the above sentence, the word 'concerned' is

(1) an adverb (2) an adjective (3) a verb (4) a noun (2)

129. in the Grammar - Translation Method

(1) Reading and writing receive the major focus.

(2) Speaking and listening receive the major focus.

(3) Speaking receives the major focus.

(4) Listening receives the major focus. (1)

130. In The Grammar-Translation Method, Grammar

(1) is taught deductively.

(2) is taught inductively.

(3) is taught both deductively and inductively.

(4) is taught neither inductively nor deductively. (1)

131. The major weakness of the Grammar - Translation method is

(1) It does not provide equal consideration to all the four language skills.

(2) It provides ample scope to learn aural-oral skills.

(3) The written aspect of the language is almost completely neglected.

(4) The teacher need not necessarily be the master of the target

language (1)

132. Which one of the following is not a common feature of the Direct Method?

(1) Emphasis on the oral language

(2) Intensive speech practice

(3) Exclusive use of the new language

(4)	Intensive reading practice			(4)
133. The Grammar translation method pays little attention to
(1)	Grammar	(2)	Translation	(4)
(3)	Mother tongue	(4)	Pronunciation	(4)

134. The Grammar-Translation method puts a tremendous strain on

(1)	Teacher's memory	(2)	Student's memory	(2)
(3)	Parent's memory	(4)	Creative imagination	(2)

135. In the Grammar - Translation method the language most used in the class is

(1)	English	(2)	Foreign language	(3)
(3)	Mother tongue	(4)	Tribal language	(3)
136. Direct method puts emphasis on
(1)	Mother tongue	(2)	Rules of Grammar
(3)	Translation in Hindi			(4)
(4)	Direct use of English in meaningful situations.			(4)

137. Indian learners of English generally suffer from the following weakness:

(1) Inability to understand pronunciation

(2) Think they know everything

(3) Do net-chatting

(4) Write e-mails (1)

138. Communicative competence includes

(1) only grammatical knowledge

(2) both grammatical knowledge and the ability to use this knowledge to perform different functions

(3) only abstract grammatical knowledge	(2)
(4) only linguistic competence	(2)

139. Teaching Comprehension is difficult because the reader is not familiar

(1) with the use of idiomatic phrases in the passage

(2) with the author

(3) with the age in which the piece is written

	(4) with the passage		(1)
140.	The structural approach stresses on the importance of
	(1) spelling of words	(2) fluency	(4)
	(3) vocabulary	(4) sentence structures	(4)
141.	The audio-lingual method is based on
	(1) grammatical explanation	(2) analysis of content	(3)
	(3) memorisation of dialogues	(4) writing practice	(3)

142. Why is 'testing' necessary?

(1) Testing is necessary to know the achievement level of the learners.

(2) Testing is necessary for proper utilization of language resources.

(3) Testing is necessary to know the competence of the teacher.

	(4)	Testing is necessary to promote the learner.			(1)
143.	Teaching Prose includes
	(1)	Reading skills	(2)	Listening skills	(1)
	(3)	Speaking skills	(4)	Writing skills	(1)
144.	Communicative approach to ELT emphasizes on
	(1)	Grammatical competence	(2)	Communicative competence
	(3)	Thinking competence	(4)	Writing competence	(2)

145. Which of the following is not true ?

(1) There is no single fool-proof method of teaching.

(2) No method is intrinsically good or bad.

(3) All methods can be adopted.

(4) Teachers are theoretical people. (4)

146. An open-ended question allows for opinion as it has

(1) more than one correct answer

(2) only one correct answer

(3) not more than one correct answer

	(4) two correct answers				(1)
147.	A closed question has
	(1)	Three correct answers	(2)	Four correct answers	(4)
	(3)	Two correct answers	(4)	One correct answer	(4)
148.	Basically language is a form of activity, and one learns a
	language through
	(1) rote-memorization		(2) activity		(2)
	(3) mimicry		(4) methods		(2)

149. A Metaphor is an

(1) implied comparison

(2) earthly story with a heavenly meaning

(3) implied statement

(4) implied argument (1)

150. 'Child is the Father of Man.' The above sentence contains a/an

(1)	Paradox	(2)	Irony	(1)
(3)	Sarcasm	(4)	Oxymoron	(1)

Student Zone

RPSC 2nd Grade English Answer Key Solution 2011 by Arya Compition times

Comments

Post a Comment

Popular posts from this blog

Rajasthan Teacher Eligibility Test [RTET] BSER- 2012

JSSC Recruitment 2018 – 3080 Post Graduate Trained Teacher Vacancy